Re: My probable cause of my romantic pedophilia

"I think it's obvious that there are some "first come, first served" features to the sexual market - which would make at least some prepubescent and thus pre-fertile attraction desirable..."

This is certainly the case with some modern preliterature cultures, e.g. the Cinta Larga (Brazil), where marriages can occur between men and 8yo girls when there is a shortage of older marriageable females. The anthropologists suggest that no sex occurs at that age, only later, but I find this rather doubtful. When Kenneth Good married his Yanomami girl, she looked like an 8yo even though she was 12. Do you suppose he waited to go to bed with her? Going by Margaret Mead's observation, 12, 8, they all have what is necessary for sexual pleasure and attraction.

"I disagree that an exclusive attraction (presumably caused by an over-concentration of paedo genes and other factors in a single individual) would always be an error: it is possible that a girl ... is fertile before they show visual signs of post-pubescence."

Almost never. Moreover, if she were fertile but otherwise prepubescent, pregnancy, delivery and lactation would be fraught with problems.