Re: Someone here was wondering why hetero MAA's

A confounding factor is that nobody really knows the amount or degree of bisexuality on either teleiophiles or pedophiles. Different questions or ways to measure it give different results on teleiophiles; and of course, different political agendas interpret the results differently. Same with pedophilia, worsened by the lack of research on us.

Yet, generally speaking, it could have consequences on the science. If it was discovered that bisexuality is the same as it is on teleiophiles, it would mean the essential mechanisms that would make a teleophile hetero, gay or bisexual are at play on us, or other ones with a similar effect. If we were significantly more bisexual, it would mean that a "child attraction trigger" is stronger than any "gender-based trigger"; and if we were significantly less bisexual, it would mean that each BL and GL are completely separate orientations and that they both present in an individual only because an individual can develop both, but that each is happening independently of the other all the time too.

I personally think I see more bisexuality on GC and BC than I see on teleiophiles. However, there is a number of reasons why this could be so, without meaning that pedophiles really are more bisexual. Most of all, I think some BLers (moreso TBL than LBL, but possibly some LBL too) identify themselves as gay rather than pedophiles; and some GLers (AGL, I would think it strange for a LGL, but maybe some too) identify themselves as heterosexual rather than pedophiles. It could be that bisexual pedophiles find pedophilia more salient in their lives precisely because they realize they are attracted to the underage on both genders, yet they are not attracted to adults on both (and sometimes, to the adults on neither) - so they become overrepresented.

You say you are about 60/40 GL/BL. But what does that mean? That you are attracted to 3 girls for every 2 boys? Or that your attraction for "the average" girl you like is 150% as intense as for "the average" boy you like? Or more simply, that out of every 10 people you like, about 6 are girls and about 4 are boys? Either could be ways to read that statement. And really, both could be wrong; only you determine what it really means. Now, multiply that for a whole population whose attractions are all different, and you know why you got, scientifically speaking, a mess.

I notice that madpenguin hasn't even touched the other elephant, though. That's the division between hebephilia and pedophilia. I know on BC the TBL and LBL population know each other to be different. There seems to be more of an overlap on GC, or at least more of each side who are attracted for enough of the transition years to overlap with each other. I suspect that too is a true orientation division, but, how to measure?