I did some quick math once and came up with something that suggested the percentage of pedos in jail for sexual crimes against children and the percentage of telios in jail for sexual crimes against children were roughly equivalent, if slightly skewed in the direction of pedos, which makes sense to me if you take into account all the victimless crimes.

However, I think the issue is just far too muddied by various factors to draw any meaningful conclusions from available statistics.

Still, there are certain statements I feel comfortable making. I usually explain it like this:

1. Child rape is not the same as child molestation. Being of a certain sexuality does not make one more likely to be capable of rape.

2. Child molestation happens for different reasons, only one being that the molester is a pedophile who is so taken with a little girl that he makes the mistake of approaching her sexually. Rather, many cases of child molestation are opportunistic offenses, where the adult doing the molesting was actually not a pedophile.

3. Statistics suggest that the vast majority of pedophiles are not child molesters (they do not approach children sexually). It should be assumed that the average pedophile is actually a normal, law-abiding citizen of sound judgement and good character.

Any (or all) of those statements typically goes over well with your average sympathetic non. Not sure about the general public.

- Rainbow