"By my reading of DSM5, paraphilias are now officially separate from paraphilic disorders. If you fit the "A" criteria you have the paraphilia, if you fit both A and B, they say you have you have a "paraphilic disorder".

So I think what you said is out of date.

Are there any flaws in my reading of this?"

You appear to be right.

Although, in the APA's efforts to backtrack on the orientation "typo" they sure sound as if they're reverting to every aspect of the DSM-4TR's definition.

"In the case of pedophilic disorder, the notable detail is what wasn’t revised in the new manual. Although proposals were discussed throughout the DSM-5 development process, diagnostic criteria ultimately remained the same as in DSM-IV TR. Only the disorder name will be changed from pedophilia to pedophilic disorder to maintain consistency with the chapter’s other listings."

http://www.dsm5.org/Documents/Paraphilic%20Disorders%20Fact%20Sheet.pdf

If it were merely a name change ( as the press release suggests, ) then the tripartite criterion isn't parsed into an interest without distress and a disorder with distress.

And yet the corrected text shows only the change in the "typo" rather than in the new DSM5 notion of the "contented Pedophile."

Gee whiz. I might not have to give up my membership card after all. :)

Dante