In some of our disagreements the issues are complicated and I realize it will be difficult to convince people. But this seems like a pretty specific case. Instead of just waving your hands and saying I don't know what I'm talking about, I challenge you to say specifically here what you think I've gotten wrong. On what grounds is it appropriate to claim that iatrogenic factors are the primary cause of harm from sexual abuse, while not appropriate to claim that when people speak of "consent" most of them mean "informed consent"?