This is an honest question. I've never actually had this explained to me before... it seems to just be unanimously understood by everyone except pedophiles (and non-pedophiles who've interacted with pedophiles and thus actually given it some honest thought).

I've heard people say things along the lines of "it's unethical to recieve sexual satisfaction from a sentient being who does not, or cannot, give consent (or implied consent)", and that, to me, sounds like a reasonable, intelligent thing to say.

But then they follow that up with "children are incapable of consent".

Why (are they incapable of consent)?

The capability to freely express "yes" or "no" in response to something - is this a capability which children do not intrinsically have for some reason?

No... I'm pretty sure every sentient being is capable of consent....

The question is whether or not children should be allowed to freely express "yes" in response to sex with their elders.

Society says they shouldn't. Okay, fine. I'm not totally in agreement with that, but I'm not in total disagreement either.

But why are children supposed to be incapable of consent? What's the anti-logic for this one?

(I have a feeling the people who regurgitate this statement must be missing the definitions for incapable and consent.)

- Rainbow