There are actually many self-identifying Pedos who don't fit the DSM criteria for it as a paraphilia, but who do fit the minority stance within the APA of it as a sexual orientation ( where "acted upon the 'urges', or felt distress over them" are not requirements. )
By my reading of DSM5, paraphilias are now officially separate from paraphilic disorders. If you fit the "A" criteria you have the paraphilia, if you fit both A and B, they say you have you have a "paraphilic disorder".
So I think what you said is out of date. As I understand it, despite not using the term orientation, they do now classify someone as "having pedophilia" (which, surely must be the same as "being a pedophile") even if they have not acted on it or suffered distress. It would also therefore be technically correct to say pedophilia, like transvestism, is no longer considered a mental disorder.
This seems like a small step forward, as well as simply being more logical. Are there any flaws in my reading of this?